755 were vacinated, and 750 placebo recipients meeting the criteria for evaluation. Obviously, it is assumed that both groups did not have HPV prior to the experiment.

At the end of the test period, 111 placebo recipients out of 750 developped “persistent infection”.

Now, a placebo group is supposed to be a group which receive no active agent, and whose behaviour is left unchanged.

If so, can somebody explain how come 111 persons (14%), originally NOT affected by the HPV, developped HPV within the time frame of the study? Does it mean that HPV is spreading at a 14% percent rate in the general population? (which would mean that at least 40% of the women would be currently infected)

This spread in the placebo group is suspiciously high, which indicate major tampering with the placebo group.

This is a sexually transmitted disease, therefore the parameters of who these girls had sex with and under what circumstances are of major importance. Yet, the study doesn’t mention anything on that subject, which is a very serious omission.

Based on the above, I strongly suspect the experiment has been tampered with.

I also note that the original group is 2,391 women. Yet, only 1505 of them “met the criteria for evaluation”. Hum. What was the criteria for evaluation? Does it mean that the remaining 886 women had already contracted HPV prior to the testing period? Were any of these 886 women vaccinated and then left aside in the results because they were not showing the desired results?

If these 886 women did not meet the evaluation criteria, why are they even counted as participating to the study? Unless it means they were dropped out after the begining of the testing period, which is a sure way to tamper the results.